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My Titulus

What could be written on your titulus?

  • A criminal?

    Votes: 22 17.7%
  • A traitor, spy, deserter, renegade, war criminal (at the bad side)?

    Votes: 21 16.9%
  • A rebel, a martyr, resisting tyranny or oppression (from the 'good side')?

    Votes: 59 47.6%
  • For ignorance, or failing responsability (e.g. manslaughter)?

    Votes: 10 8.1%
  • Others?

    Votes: 34 27.4%

  • Total voters
    124
Go to CruxDreams.com
Only a very small percentage of people in the Roman world were able to read.

There was an important book-length supplement to The Journal of Roman Archaeology back in 2007 with several papers addressing this question:
this review gives a good summary of its contents: http://bmcr.brynmawr.edu/1992/03.03.07.html
Obviously the wide range of time, space and social systems in 'the Roman world' makes it impossible to generalise, but a lot of evidence - graffiti from Pompeii, letters from Vindolanda, shopping lists on Egyptian papyri etc. etc. - hint that, especially in busy cities, army units, villa estates and other contexts outwith the rural peasant world, a significant proportion of household slaves, freedmen, craft workers, market traders, female as well as male, had some degree of literacy - even some knowledge of literary phrases (just as phrases from the Bible and Shakespeare are in everyday English)
 
Obviously the wide range of time, space and social systems in 'the Roman world' makes it impossible to generalise, but a lot of evidence - graffiti from Pompeii, letters from Vindolanda, shopping lists on Egyptian papyri etc. etc. - hint that, especially in busy cities, army units, villa estates and other contexts outwith the rural peasant world
Nonetheless the Empire was the rural peasant world, with everything else as superstructures (sorry for channelling an Oxford Communist academic with the CF-friendly last name :)). We ought to note that there were many different literacies, with the Roman world roughly delineated into Latin and Greek along the old Octavian-Antony divide... and I suppose that enough Second Temple kohanim well-versed in Hebrew and Aramaic had no clue what Titus had his Italian-born soldiers write on their tituli, if they indeed received such.
 
Nonetheless the Empire was the rural peasant world, with everything else as superstructures (sorry for channelling an Oxford Communist academic with the CF-friendly last name :)). We ought to note that there were many different literacies, with the Roman world roughly delineated into Latin and Greek along the old Octavian-Antony divide... and I suppose that enough Second Temple kohanim well-versed in Hebrew and Aramaic had no clue what Titus had his Italian-born soldiers write on their tituli, if they indeed received such.

Even today, literacy vs illiteracy isn't defined by a bright line, but by degree. There are people who can read a street sign, but can't read a newspaper. There are people who read The New York Post, but can't read a newspaper. So even a minimally literate person might be able to make out "Thief" or "Failed to Feed Parking Meter" or "Wore Plaid Trousers Off Golf Course".
 
Even today, literacy vs illiteracy isn't defined by a bright line, but by degree. There are people who can read a street sign, but can't read a newspaper. There are people who read The New York Post, but can't read a newspaper. So even a minimally literate person might be able to make out "Thief" or "Failed to Feed Parking Meter" or "Wore Plaid Trousers Off Golf Course".
'We don't play golf.'
KOSB Marching_in_Berwick.jpeg
The King's Own Scottish Borderers
 
Did she already forget why she had been brought into Judge Admi's courtroom?:doh:

Or against all reason and better judgment still pretending "I am innocent!"?:devil:
Once crucified the CF Cruxette will not have access to her online devises and even if she could crane her head enough to see the titulus there is no telling if it says the same as the made-up charges she has been convicted of committing!!!
 
Meditating (as one should on Good Friday afternoon) on the Gospel accounts of the crucifixion of Jesus,
I’ve put together a few notes on the terms used by the Evangelists for the ‘notice’ written by Pilate and posted on the cross.

Matthew 27:37 uses the Greek word aitían, the Latin Vulgate has causam, the AV/KJV has ‘accusation’, the NRVS ‘charge’;

Mark 15:26 has epigraphē tēs aitías, Vulgate titulus causae, AV ‘superscription of his accusation’, NRSV ‘inscription of the charge’;

Luke 23:38 says epigraphē ep’autōi, Vulgate superscriptio super eum, AV ‘superscription...over him’, NRSV ‘inscription over him’

John 19:20 títlon, Vulgate titulum, AV ‘inscription’, NRSV ‘inscription’.

In Matthew and John the word is in the accusative case, in Mark and Luke epigraphē is nominative, aitías in Luke is genitive.

Note that only John used the Greek títlon, although Jerome also used titulus to translate Mark’s epigraphē. Títlos/ titulus simply meant ‘a small notice’ of any kind, not necessary a sign of disgrace; it was used by extension, much as our ‘title’ still is, for titles of honour, legal entitlements, headings of chapters etc. By Jerome’s time (4th century), the irony of this ‘notice of accusation’ being also a ‘title of honour’ would have been obvious. But it’s a mistake to assume that this word would necessarily have been associated by Greek or Latin speakers with crucifixions, at least not until the triumph of Christianity in the late Empire.

Epigraphē/ superscriptio is literally ‘something written on or above’, and Luke seems to emphasis the point by adding ep’autōi ‘above him’, presumably meaning it was placed physically above Jesus (a matter we’ve been debating, as it implies a stauros/stipēs extending above the patibulum). Again, the word is neutral in meaning, just something written in a prominent place.

Only aitía used by itself by Matthew, and qualifying epigraphē by Mark, carries connotations of criminality, though only by implication, it’s literally, like Jerome’s Latin causa, the ‘cause’, the reason why Jesus is being crucified. Nevertheless, although the Evangelists use different terms, they all write as if posting such a notice was a reasonably common practice, not perhaps in all cases (there’s no mention of the two thieves having such explanations posted for their executions), but at least in unusual, ‘celebrity’ cases or where the authorities wanted to make an example of the victim.
 
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Meditating (as one should on Good Friday afternoon) on the Gospel accounts of the crucifixion of Jesus,
I’ve put together a few notes on the terms used by the Evangelists for the ‘notice’ written by Pilate and posted on the cross.

Matthew 27:37 uses the Greek word aitían, the Latin Vulgate has causam, the AV/KJV has ‘accusation’, the NRVS ‘charge’;

Mark 15:26 has epigraphē tēs aitías, Vulgate titulus causae, AV ‘superscription of his accusation’, NRSV ‘inscription of the charge’;

Luke 23:28 says epigraphē ep’autōi, Vulgate superscriptio super eum, AV ‘superscription...over him’, NRSV ‘inscription over him’

John 19:20 títlon, Vulgate titulum, AV ‘inscription’, NRSV ‘inscription’.

In Matthew, Luke and John the word is in the accusative case, in Luke epigraphē is nominative, aitías genitive.

Note that only John used the Greek títlon, although Jerome also used titulus to translate Mark’s epigraphē. Títlos/ titulus simply meant ‘a small notice’ of any kind, not necessary a sign of disgrace; it was used by extension, much as our ‘title’ still is, for titles of honour, legal entitlements, headings of chapters etc. By Jerome’s time (4th century), the irony of this ‘notice of accusation’ being also a ‘title of honour’ would have been obvious. But it’s a mistake to assume that this word would necessarily have been associated by Greek or Latin speakers with crucifixions, at least not until the triumph of Christianity in the late Empire.

Epigraphē/ superscriptio is literally ‘something written on or above’, and Luke seems to emphasis the point by adding ep’autōi ‘above him’, presumably meaning it was placed physically above Jesus (a matter we’ve been debating, as it implies a stauros/stipēs extending above the patibulum). Again, the word is neutral in meaning, just something written in a prominent place.

Only aitía used by itself by Matthew, and qualifying epigraphē by Mark, carries connotations of criminality, though only by implication, it’s literally, like Jerome’s Latin causa, the ‘cause’, the reason why Jesus is being crucified. Nevertheless, although the Evangelists use different terms, they all write as if posting such a notice was a reasonably common practice, not perhaps in all cases (there’s no mention of the two thieves having such explanations posted for their executions), but at least in unusual, ‘celebrity’ cases or where the authorities wanted to make an example of the victim.

Interesting. If it was common practice, one would think the two thieves would have a posting over their heads as well. Perhaps, it is just that Matthew, Mark and others just weren't interested in describing those kinds of details with regard to the thieves given that the object of the Gospel writer's attention was the crucifixion of Jesus.
 
Interesting. If it was common practice, one would think the two thieves would have a posting over their heads as well. Perhaps, it is just that Matthew, Mark and others just weren't interested in describing those kinds of details with regard to the thieves given that the object of the Gospel writer's attention was the crucifixion of Jesus.

Maybe that's how they knew that the other two were thieves, as opposed to some other crime that merited crucifixion?
 
I do not have the sources to hand, but I have encountered various interpretations of the two thieves on their crosses. One suggests they were bandits, which is conveniently interpreted as 'thieves', but could equally make them associates of Barabbas, or rebels who were captured after the recent insurrection in Jerusalem. If this event included the disturbance in the Temple in which Jesus attacked the money-changers, then all three crucified on Good Friday would effectively have been charged with sedition.
 
Matt 27:38 and Mark 15:27 both call them lēistas,
which NRSV translates as 'bandits', Liddel & Scott 'robbers, plunderers'
Luke 23:32 has kakourgoi, literally 'wrongdoers', NRSV 'criminals'
John 19:18 simply allous duo, 'two others' -
the impression is a bit vague, as Barb says, the Evangelists weren't all that bothered
why they were being crucified, they just imply they deserved to be.

I overlooked that Matthew 27:37 also says the aitia 'accusation' was placed 'above his head'.
 
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aitia is basically 'cause, origin', as in aetiology, but in Classical Greek it had already acquired a legal sense of a charge or accusation,
Jerome's translation, causa, had a similar sense in Roman Law (as 'cause' still does in civil law, though as the 'grounds' for litigation
rather than a criminal charge).

Given the CruxForums character of Jesus's trial, of course it could be inferred that he had only been 'accused', not properly 'found guilty',
but I think on the titulus, we can read it as the 'cause' for him being crucified, the reason why he was there -
which was, in Pilate's scornful opinion, not just claiming to be, but simply being, 'King of the Jews'.
 
Matt 27:38 and Mark 15:27 both call them lēistas,
which NRSV translates as 'bandits', Liddel & Scott 'robbers, plunderers'
Luke 23:32 has kakourgoi, literally 'wrongdoers', NRSV 'criminals'
John 19:18 simply allous duo, 'two others' -
the impression is a bit vague, as Barb says, the Evangelists weren't all that bothered
why they were being crucified, they just imply they deserved to be.

I overlooked that Matthew 27:37 also says the aitia 'accusation' was placed 'above his head'.

Translators added more confusion. For instance, the first Dutch Bible translations (15th century) called them 'murderers'. Today, the namings 'the good murderer' and the 'the bad murderer' (de goede moordenaar en de slechte moordenaar) are generally used. I have seen as yet no other language where this naming is used.
 
That's interesting - I suppose 'moordenaar' might have a broad sense, like 'bandits, robbers' who'd be presumed to have killed people?
Tyndale (whose 1526 translation the AV followed) used 'theves' in Matt and Mark, 'evyl doers' in Luke (later in the chapter, 'malefactours'),
'two othyrs' in John.

And for the aitia/ titulus, Tyndale says at Mark 15:26 'the title of the cause of his death' -
following Jerome's titulus causae, obviously in the quasi-legal sense, not the medical cause.
 
Isn't it amazing how often this site seems more like more like one about religion or history than a niche kinky fetish.
:)
I'd like to add my thoughts to some of the above.
On the use of the term "charge" or "accusation": First, the writers of the gospels were not - so far we know - lawyers. So, they were not concerned with the precise use of terminology. And, from their perspective, Jesus was not guilty of any crime, so the titulus would not have named his crime, but, rather the charge brought against him.
In any case, the titulus, as described, does not list a crime. It reads: "King of the Jews". This isn't a crime. It is the claim he was alleged to make which constituted - to the Romans - the crime of sedition or treason. To the gospel writers, this was a false claim. Jesus never claimed to be king of anything and his claim to be the messiah was not one of temporal kingship.

On the two "thieves": It's likely they were bandits who robbed travelers, which would have been considered a much more serious crime than common thievery. They may well have had titulae (?), but the gospel writers didn't bother giving that detail or any other details about them. Why would they? These men were just minor players in something the writers considered far more important. They didn't bother to give their names either. The names we now know the by, Dismas and Gestas, are from the apocryphal Gospel of Nicodemus,the oldest part of which probably dates from the IV century.
 
On the use of the term "charge" or "accusation": First, the writers of the gospels were not - so far we know - lawyers. So, they were not concerned with the precise use of terminology. And, from their perspective, Jesus was not guilty of any crime, so the titulus would not have named his crime, but, rather the charge brought against him.
In any case, the titulus, as described, does not list a crime. It reads: "King of the Jews". This isn't a crime. It is the claim he was alleged to make which constituted - to the Romans - the crime of sedition or treason. To the gospel writers, this was a false claim. Jesus never claimed to be king of anything and his claim to be the messiah was not one of temporal kingship.

Nevertheless, as I said above, although the Evangelists use different terms,
they all write as if posting such a notice explaining the 'cause'
was a reasonably common practice, though not perhaps in all cases.
 
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